/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
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In the Spirit of German Unity Day today: Why didn't the West Berliners, who could freely access the Berlin Wall, damage it or knock it down?
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Why didn't Britain and France declare war on the Soviet Union for invading Poland like they did to Germany?
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I am reading *The Great Transformation* by Karl Polanyi and he claims that ‘feudalism implied everywhere a system of redistribution’. Then he goes on to clarify that only in Western Europe has this become predominantly political. What system of feudalism is being referred to here?
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Did the Dust Bowl of the 1930's reach into Canada or Mexico, or were the dust storms limited to the US?
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I've often heard the comparison of serfdom in Eastern Europe during the modern era to feudalism in Western Europe during the middle ages. How true is it? Would the lives of the lowliest serfs in 19th century Russia be comparable to that of their 14th century counterparts in France or England?
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